How did post-Industrial Revolution Britain and other Western nations including the USA improve the conditions of its industrial workers and remove hunger and poverty? How long did it take to achieve? And can the same path to prosperity and wealth be a model for sustainable economic development in the developing countries of India, China, Latin America and Africa? Is it possible to follow a purely capitalist free-market economy to let that happen or will the space the government vacates be taken over by the mafia, drug lords, extremists and fundamentalists who'll further erode the development with their parallel government and economy? What do you think? Please provide some sources or texts for further reference and discussion.
2006-12-10
11:24:48
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5 answers
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asked by
Maloy
3
in
Social Science
➔ Economics
For those who are unaware of the extent of poverty in the developing countries, the UN defines the poverty line as living on less than $1 a day.
2006-12-10
11:42:12 ·
update #1
Mortgage of private property is one thing and removing poverty is another. What do the homeless people begging in the streets have to mortgage?
2006-12-15
12:49:55 ·
update #2