2006-12-10 03:53:11 · 6 answers · asked by CE CE 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
Certainly it has to do with the genetic make-up of individuals. Certain people lack of insulin receptors, thus insulin can't get a signal for the cells to uptake glucose. Thus increase concentration of glucose in blood streams and reduce in cells. Basically the cells starve to dead without glucose. It's just like the foods are there in your mouth but you can't swallow them. Same thing with the cells, the glocose are in blood stream but they cannot take it. I think this is Type I diabete.
2006-12-10 04:03:54 · answer #1 · answered by Dr. Zoo 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-09-19 15:15:47 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-05-19 03:50:13 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Type 2 diabetes is related to age and obesity, and also appears to have a genetic component.
The obese, older, and genetically prone segments of the population would therefore be expected to have a higher prevalence.
Read up!
http://www.emedicine.com/emerg/topic134.htm
2006-12-10 03:57:26 · answer #4 · answered by Jerry P 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There might be a genetic component, which could cause certain ethnic groups (those carrying the gene) to be more likely to have the disease.
There might be lifestyle issues. Different ethnic types have different traditional foods, some of which might be fattier, leading to more people overweight, leading to more disease.
2006-12-10 04:04:14 · answer #5 · answered by chocolahoma 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2006-12-10 03:55:24 · answer #6 · answered by undergroundburn 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋