I read a question on Yahoo Answers yesterday asking women whether they have had sex with their partner whilst he was asleep. I'm interested to hear what your thoughts are about the following two scenarios:
1. A man has sex with his wife/girlfriend whilst she is asleep. Do you find this acceptable? Would you describe this as rape?
2. A woman has sex with her husband/boyfriend while he is asleep. Do you find this acceptable? Would you describe this as rape?
2006-12-10 02:01:51 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
I wonder how it is possible for either one to occur unless you are under anesthesia but if it were possible to do it I'm sure the relationship would end in a heartbeat if one or the other pursued a rape case. They must not like their partner very well.
2006-12-10 02:06:14 · answer #1 · answered by MsFancy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the normal course of life, both would be rape. There is a scenario where you can have sex yet yourself be asleep. It's now recognised and understood. I've had this happen once myself. This isn't rape however. If a person is unconscious and a conscious partner decides to attempt intercourse without prior agreement, then morally it's wrong and legally I believe it would be rape. There are folks who would agree in principle to be woken up this way-but I dont' think these scenarios refer to this of course.
2006-12-10 14:07:11 · answer #2 · answered by karnautrahl 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I've had them fall asleep while we were doing it, and I've done the same thing. Don't think I ever bothered or managed to finish in either case.
But, for what it's worth, it probably IS possible for a man to be - ahem - taken advantage of this way, so to speak. Dream driven b*ners can be some of the most formidiable we ever generate.
If my wife or significant other or any other female that happened to be in my bed at the time I generated one wanted to make use of it, I don't think I'd wake up griping about it or go running to the law.
2006-12-10 14:31:46 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Rape is the term used for sexual intercourse without consent. So both of these scenarios would be considered to be rape.
2006-12-10 11:26:00 · answer #4 · answered by Deirdre O 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
both are rape because the both parties are unable to give consent. at least thats the legal definition.
2006-12-10 10:07:39 · answer #5 · answered by hotgurl1805 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not acceptable.
2006-12-10 10:30:04 · answer #6 · answered by Nixxi 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋