Who had the greater legal claim to the English throne: William of Normandy or Harold Godwinson?

Answer 1

Harold for two reasons.

1. Harold was the son of Earl Godwin, who was Edward the Confessor's father-in-law. So there was a family link (albeit tenuous.)

2. At that time, the monarchy was not necessarily hereditary and any monarch had to have the approval of the Saxon council, the "Witan". Harold had gained this approval and was crowned king the day after the death of the Confessor.

Answer 2

Harold, most definately as he was in line of succession and William wasn't. There was, of course, the question of Harold's holy oath to William when he was captured in an earlier fight that he, William, would inherit on the death of Edward the Confessor. However, I would argue that this vow was of no effect, being obtained under duress.The indigenous Saxon people then had to endure 100s of years of overlordship by hostile Normans. It is interesting that this attitude still obtains amongst the English ruling classes. At the Queen's recent 80th birthday it was claimed she could claim descent from William of Normandy (we probably all could, but that's by the by). 600 years of history following the end of Roman occupation was ignored!

Answer 3

His substantial declare replaced into that the previous King, Edward the Confessor had special him the inheritor. And he succeeded because of fact Harold defeated his different rival and William defeated him, leaving him the only claimant left

Answer 4

As I understand it, Harold did, because he had been promised the throne and was a not-too-distant relative of the dead king.

Answer 5

Both, cause the throne was empty and Cristian Church should have no power over the English people.

Merry X-Mas