I'm so tired of schools teaching that Columbus (or even Leif Erikson) discovered America. It was already settled by Native Americans before any whites ever got here. There is also evidence that Chinese were here long before them on the Pacific coast.
But as far as your question at hand about the languages, my response is this:
In South America, the Natives there were over taken and it was settled primarily by the Spanish and Portuguese. Therefore, their language is primarily Spanish (most of South America) and Portuguese (primarily Brazil and a few others).
In North American (US and most of Canada), our language is English because our first permanent settlers were English and in the french speaking part of Canada, those early settlers were primarily French.
I do understand your logic of thinking, but the difference is that the Spanish not only "discovered" South America, they also settled there.
2006-12-10 02:49:26
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Good ol' Chris Columbus discovered the Americas, and he really only discovered that there were people already settled here and they were not Spanish. They were Natives so why dint we speak the Native language? No one would have ever spoken the language from Spain because they did not colonize here. And the South American areas they spoke Portuguese, French and British as well as many dialects from the ancients like Mayan, Incan, and Aztec. Spain had an influence but then again where did their language stem from Latin right? So that would be the origin which was Rome? And that would mean the Italian language became a different dialect? And the American English is Deutch and Latin right so it is a branch of it but so that everyone can blend the British language was the best case scenario for the colonization for this country. Since Great Britain was the country that conquered and ruled here it only stands to reason that we would adopt their language right? The saying goes when in Rome do as the Romans. So when in America the USA, do as they say too right? American English bridges the whole entire gap in communication all over the world why should we start dividing with language barriers now? If that be the case lets go back to the original Latin, it is more defined for meaning. ET Tu Brute?
2006-12-09 19:00:54
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Because while the Iberians were busy looting south, Meso,and parts of north America the French & English set up coloneys in north america, The English became dominate in Canada what the French had leff Nepolan sold to the US for $10 million becuase British Naval supprimicy he though garenteed that the Brittish would take it any way. Thus Louisiana and qubec are the hold out from french america and in the 1800's we expelled the spanish from Florida, later the Brits and the US got together and recognised each others claimes on the oragon teritory disreguarding spanish claims and the Russian who by 1860's sold us Alaska thus leaving the two major powers in N. America English speacking. Green land is a danish posesstion but I think the poulation speaks mostly inuit or something like it.
Moreover, the Brzilians are only S.Americans that speak Puchaguese becuase most of their claims were in Asia an a certain Pope divided the would between the Iberians and the line gos thru south America.
2006-12-09 16:27:41
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answer #3
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answered by sean e 4
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A lot of Americans do speak Spanish. But the reason most of us in North America speak English is because North America was mainly settled by English-speaking people, not Spanish-speaking.
2006-12-09 16:21:27
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answer #4
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answered by yahoohoo 6
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Hi,, well being honest Columbus was not Spanish.. but he was financed by Spain..
The reason is the English came into America and took on the Spanish and French for ownership of the colonies.. and we speak the English language is why...
Good luck
2006-12-09 16:18:30
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answer #5
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answered by eejonesaux 6
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Simple: Dumb people always go for the easiest way!
As far as discovery goes: Why don’t we say that some people, who were innocently sitting at some beach admiring the ocean, one day made the unfortunate discovery of some ships arriving to their land (and in the long run causing a lot of problems). Thus (as these ships had to come from somewhere) these natives discovered the old world.
And yet, there is an answer to your question: The English colonized America, not the Spanish.
Even if New York was Dutch first (Pieter Stuyvesant), Big Apple now is mostly American.
(However, better don’t ask what kind of perverted tongue it is!!)
2006-12-09 22:44:25
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answer #6
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answered by saehli 6
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First of all, Columbus was Italian.
He never actually discovered or landed in North America. He did land in both Central and South America. He founded a colony, of 39 men, on Hispaniola.
2006-12-09 16:26:01
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answer #7
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answered by Stewart H 4
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The English colonized America not the Spanish
2006-12-09 16:25:03
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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A lot of South America speaks Portuguese. Anyway, the Engrish are the responsible party. They crushed the Spanish AND the French. Que pasa Paris?
2006-12-09 16:21:07
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answer #9
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answered by ADubya 2
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Gee, I dont know. Maybe it's because Columbus didn't discover America!!! Leif Erikson did!!! geez. But since he is known for it, I would have to say that the reason that we dont speak any type of spanish is because since the dominant people came (the English) and were the more overpowering than the Spanish, English became the more prominent language in the northern area.
2006-12-09 16:31:03
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answer #10
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answered by *♥Jinx♥* 3
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