2006-12-09 14:03:39 · 28 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
Because the Queen is the heriditary Monarch--Philip cannot be the King because the King always outranks a Queen. However Philip has no Heriditary right to the Throne.
If the Monarch was a King (such as King George), then his wife would be fashioned "The Queen" becuase she would not outrank her husband. However, although having the title of Queen, this person would not have a heriditary right to the Throne, and therefore on the death of her husband the first-born male (or female, from now one) would assume the title of King/Queen and the former Queen would become The Queen Mother.
2006-12-09 20:04:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The monarch is usually the son or daughter, or other close relative, of the previous monarch. In England, the current queen Elizabeth is a daughter of king George VI. Her husband is prince Philip, and there is currently no king. The idea is that a person becomes the monarch by inheriting the title (usually from one's parent), and not by marriage. However, in many cases, in England and elsewhere, the spouse of the monarch has been king or queen. It depends on the customs of the country in question and on the particular circumstances.
This is just off the top of my head, some expert in royal issues probably could give a much more intricate explanation.
2006-12-09 22:12:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because Prince Philip was not the eldest son of the late King George VI. In fact, Prince Philip was not any son of the late King. The late King only had two daughters.
Prince Philip was ONLY the son-in-law of the late King George VI. Being a son-in-law does not qualify one to be King.
A Queen Consort is the husband of a King.
However, Her Majesty, Queen Elizabeth II is NOT a Queen Consort. She is a Queen Regnant. She is a Reigning Queen. The husband of a Reigning Queen may be a Duke, a Prince, or in the case of Queen Victoria, her husband was "Prince Consort". Any title lower than that of Queen.
And one answerer thought the Queen could make him King if she wanted. Not so!! There is the matters of Constitutional Law, the Act of Settlement, and the Line of Succession.
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AkntP5JGUZe2FBK48VpqdBPsy6IX?qid=20061208215348AAv1aae&show=7#profile-info-5817c64ea2f1cbbaa5ff7ba99399edebaa
2006-12-10 00:11:57 · answer #3 · answered by kent chatham 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The King is, traditionally, the ruler of all he surveys. He is the head honcho. If the Queen of England referred to her husband as the King, it would mean that he would outrank her, and that would not be a good thing, as he has no legitimate claim to the throne of England or Great Britain.
In the hierarchy of titles, it goes King, Queen, Prince, Princess and if you mess with those titles, you change the perception of who is the actual ruler.
2006-12-09 23:27:19 · answer #4 · answered by old lady 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Queen Elizabeth II is the daughter of the previous King. When he died, she was coronated as the Queen. When a daughter becomes Queen rather than a son becoming King, only she gets the title of the monarch. The husband is given the honorary title of Prince.
If she was male and became King, the spouse would have been Queen. Queen Elizabeth II had no brothers, otherwise they would have been King and she would have remained only a Princess. Males have priority in the accession to the throne.
When the King died, his wife the Queen still lived. She lost the title "Queen" and became the Queen Mother, often called the "Queen Mum".
2006-12-09 22:04:44 · answer #5 · answered by jpbofohio 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Because he is not crowned as King.
Even princess Di would not be Queen if Charles is crowned. She will only be the King's wife.
To be crowned as King or Queen, someone has to be born into the royal family as direct descendants of a King or Queen.
Sounds boring but this is how they do it up there.
2006-12-09 22:52:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because Queen Elizabeth is a direct decendant of the royalty line, In Great Britian, it was ok for a woman to be the first born and inherit the throne, thier spouses are not known as kings are in some cases in the past, queens, they are known as princes and princesses,
2006-12-09 22:25:17 · answer #7 · answered by mntchegirl98 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the British monarchy, the husband of a female monarch does not have any recognized special status, rank, or privileges. In actual fact Prince Philip does play a major role in royal affairs, but this is not recognized in terms of his title. Interestingly enough, the wife of a male monarch (e.g. the Queen Mother was the wife of King George VI) takes on her husband's rank and style upon marrying, becoming Queen.
credit http://ask.yahoo.com/ask/20010706.html
Whoever William marries will become Queen when he becomes King.
2006-12-09 22:10:40 · answer #8 · answered by Spread Peace and Love 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I want to add that a little here. Royal blood is followed by paternal lines, not maternal. Queen Elizabeth II's husband does not contain the royal blood line, therefore he cannot be King, but their children would still carry the royal blood from Elizabeth's father. Some may say that this is discriminatory to women, but maybe so is naming someones child's last name after the father. You can't tell me that American culture isn't influenced by the Royal Family.
2006-12-10 04:58:02 · answer #9 · answered by tristan-adams 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because according to the Law in the United Kingdom marrying a Queen or a King only makes you a "Prince consort" or a "Princess consort".
2006-12-09 22:08:20 · answer #10 · answered by fabee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋