why did the Runaissancde go back to thier past i.e. Romans for influence? is there a particular reason?
2006-12-09 00:43:26 · 4 answers · asked by allgiggles1984 6 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
In Renaissance Europe, Rome was the last time that Europe (more specifically the Mediteranean) had been "great." This is why the Italian Renaissance had many Roman influences; that, and a large volume of Roman works were still preserved, many by Arabs (they were recovered by Europeans during the Crusades).
As you go farther north, however, where Rome's presence was not felt, the Roman influence is far less marked.
2006-12-09 00:48:31 · answer #1 · answered by Jon M 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was not a return to Rome, but to the classical world, and it happened in Italy and Spain.
The 'Barbarians' who sacked Rome, and the church who basically put a censorship on any thought for over a thousand years, mean that all the wisdom of the ancient world was lost in the west, however, the Arabic cultures had managed to save and research the science, and it was the discovery of Arabic translations and new works, like the maths of Al Jabra, which kick started a scientific revolution in Naples and Granada. this spread into Rome and Castile, and scholars started to look at the ancient ruins around them, rather than the supersticious pagan art which had influenced the early church.
ironically, it was the gothic revival, after the Renaissance, which scholars looked back at early church cultures.
2006-12-17 06:21:32 · answer #2 · answered by DAVID C 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Renaissance (French for rebirth)
Because after 1,500 years of close minded Christianity (imagine having Jerry Falwell in charge) the intellectuals and artists of Europe rediscovered ancient Greek and Roman civilizations which had been artistically and scientifically, and politically far superior to their own. For example: the Greeks and the Romans knew that the world was round, that it orbited the sun, in fact they measured its circumference. They had indoor plumbing, heated baths, the list goes on and on. Suffice it to say that most scholars agree that the West did not equal the living standards of the ancient world until 1900 A.D.!
2006-12-09 08:56:43 · answer #3 · answered by eagleperch 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Humanism, developed because most of the people were lacking in faith and were living for today rather than the afterlife. after the hundred years war and the black death plauge in wstern europe, wich were believed to be a punishment by god. where do all roads lead ? rebirth was the renaissance
2006-12-14 23:18:51 · answer #4 · answered by lost in history 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋