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This is a what-if scenario. Say a man was living in Germany during the Nazi control. He was born in Germany but had a celtic last name of Fionnlach. Would he of been considered an "aryan" because the Celts did originate along the danube and rhine river before they moved to britain. Or would he be prosecuted and scoffed on and put in a concentration camp with the "impure" races? Surley he wouldn't of been treated that bad?

2006-12-08 17:31:21 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

10 answers

Actually the Celts were thought to have originally come from the area of modern TURKEY...the Galatia/Galatians from the Bible.
Galatia...Gauls...Gaelic...Celts...yadda, yadda
Aryans probably weren't even a REAL people.
Hitler had no problems with the Celtic people.
He just really hated Jews, and would use ANY excuse, real or imagined, to persecute them.

2006-12-08 17:46:59 · answer #1 · answered by Muinghan Life During Wartime 7 · 1 1

The Nazis did prosecute white people with blue eyes who were protecting or helping the Jews, they considered this impurity too. They also prosecuted their own, if they were found out helping the Jews. Even pure descendants of Aryans would get the same treatment and this Celt person you are talking about, should be OK if he didn't have anything to do or related in any way, with a Jew.
Hitler himself is half Jew, either one of his grandparents or parents are Jewish. You can see how sick he was, he couldn't kill that Jewish part of him, so he killed millions of Jewish in exchange.
As an Asian, I never stop wondering how the **** someone can do that. Might as well you cut yourself into pieces, at least you will die faster and not much impure blood left after heavy bleeding.

2006-12-08 17:49:22 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Historically the "Aryans" were "Persian"(Greek name because they were the sons of Perseus-Herodotus) And the Name Aryans I think it is the Indian name for them (they conquered India). Iran means "land of the Aryans". The modern ideas of Aryan's as the master race originated in Russia in the late 1800's and is connected with Atlantis myth which was popular at the time, however, these Aryans now lived in the hemalaers and kept away from the rest of the world to keep their blood pure. From here British romanticists (names can be found in the beginning of The rise and fall of the 3ed Reich, w. L. shirea) took up the Atlantis myth and it evolved into British isles, northern France, and Germany, Scandinavia. The SS did a lot of "research" using "German Science" and the rest is at least to me confusing.
So yes Celts would be Aryans so say the Nazis.
As for the Celts, the name is Greek and is 1st conveyed to us by Herodotus, who said that they inhabited most of western Europe but not Spain, which we know they later settled. The Romans first en counted the Celts coming from the Po valley (N.Italy) the first enemy to sack Rome and that they were draw into Italy due to a taste for Italian wine-Plutarch's Marius bio. They served on both sides in the 2ed Punic war. They have been thouhgt to have been the "sea people" that destroyed egypt, but who the sea people were is still unknown. They settle Galia for which St.Pual's epistle to the Galaians is named and founded there the city of Ankara (now the capital of Turkey). No don't think the nazis would persicute them on grounds of blood.

To Beowolf, i think your right about the settlement of Turkey but it is not know where they originated. By the time Horodotus wrote his history (A ethnology realy) they covered Europe from the sythian lands in the east to atlantic (france) they were not yet in Iberia nor Asia-minor where Horodotus lived. The writing on them is limited to the Greeks, which don't say much about them and the Romans (as far as I know). And archiology seems to show that they displaced an earlier group of Battle ax whilding people, but much of this is speculation and not in the realm of history. M J roberts' A history of Europe talks about it.

2006-12-08 18:20:04 · answer #3 · answered by sean e 4 · 0 0

Peach is wrong saying that the Celts came from Turkey. In fact it is the other way around. The Celts originated in Central Europe and migrated to many parts of the continent.

Eventually several tribes of them migrated across the Bosphrous into Asia Minor (today's Turkey). That's why central Turkey is called Galatia.

2006-12-09 00:16:33 · answer #4 · answered by Beowulf-Boy 3 · 1 0

Hi, I dont have any ideas about your races. But, onething I can say as you all are thinking aryans are not the white skinned blue eyed people but they are Indians basically because the origination of first civilization on earth as per historical and archaeological evidences indicates that it took place in the banks of river sindhu which is also called Indus and the name of the place is harappa mohanjodharo and these aryans were later distributed to many parts of the world. And I think it's not good to think or feel pride of belonging to some race I think it's indirectly insulting other races. So let us stop this for now.

2006-12-08 17:48:12 · answer #5 · answered by rashmir 2 · 1 1

If they persecuted Great Britain yes they persecuted the Celtics?They killed the Celtics in battle as well as kept them in POW camps, with the Brits, (the stalags?)
Anyone that opposed their rulership. And there is not a monopoly on blue eyes with the celtics because they have brown, and grey, and green as well as did and do the Hebrews,(jews), Egyptians, Arabic, etc. "The joke is how do you tell a Jew in a crowd? "You can't" ha ha ha There were twelve tribes of Israel and one of them was Celtic as well or is Celtic a melt down from migration and integration of races? There is no way to tell unless you do the DNA tests. It is not wise to assume. Take a look at Paul Newman the actor, or Michael Douglas? What are they? Or Sammy Davis Jr what was he?

2006-12-08 17:47:39 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

G'day mushkin,

Thank you for your question.

Generally, the Celts weren't persecuted by the Nazis because they were mostly in the UK, Ireland and Spain. However, the residents of Brittany in France called Bretons were subject to Nazi rule. They were considered to be Aryans due to their light skin and weren't persecuted for racial reasons. They were considered to be Indo-Europeans like the Germans, Greeks, Romans and other Europeans.

I have attached sources for your reference.

Seasons regards

2006-12-08 17:49:37 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

The Nazi Nuremberg Laws of 1935 were denaturalization laws passed by the government of Nazi Germany. They used a pseudoscientific basis for racial discrimination against Jews. People with four German grandparents were of "German blood", while people were classified as Jews if they descended from three or more Jewish grandparents. One or two Jewish grandparents made someone "mixed blood." The Nazis used the religious observance of a person's grandparents to determine their race.

Unless your Mr Fionnlach had jewish parents/ancestors or had converted to Judaism, he would have been been considered a pure aryan.

See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Racial_policy_of_Nazi_Germany

2006-12-08 17:51:44 · answer #8 · answered by Carl 3 · 1 0

no matter if the 'manky mob' did get 10-in-a-row (which they gained't), they could nonetheless be in the back of the Glasgow Rangers record of entire titles gained. are you able to really see the'Gers sitting decrease back and letting Celtic benefit that variety of domination? there are a kind of bluenoses international wide with the money to verify that couldn't ensue. provide Rangers no more advantageous than 3 years and they are going to be decrease back the position they have continuously belonged....the biggest fish interior the Scottish pond with the Celts searching for the nearest lifejacket!

2016-11-30 08:34:16 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The germans did not persecute the celtic race. Where did you get that idea? White skin, blue eyes, that is what they prized.

2006-12-08 17:34:54 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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