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For those who are students of the scholar Alvin Plantiga. If the answer is no than his what the proof demonstrates is the impossibility of anything not being itself. This impossibility, however, can only apply to the actual world since possible other worlds and all possible entities within them by definition are hypothetical and nonexistent.

2006-12-08 11:00:26 · 6 answers · asked by kirbyguy44 3 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

6 answers

Possible, but the burden rests with Alvin Plantiga, the anti realist, who posits this question in the normal understanding that exists among humans; language. This normal understanding presupposes reality. Where is Alvin's normal understanding that presupposes anti reality?

2006-12-08 11:11:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Where does the point of reference for "actuality" reside?

What do you mean by "exist"?

This question is ultimately a recasting of the questions of "life as a dream" and of a creator-as-omnipotent deceiver from Descartes.

2006-12-08 20:12:59 · answer #2 · answered by Jerry P 6 · 0 0

everything does exist but its absolutely impossible for anything to exist. maybe u will only know the answer after you die if you still exist in some way which you probably wont.

2006-12-08 21:06:52 · answer #3 · answered by ? 2 · 0 0

Sure it's logically possible. It's also logically possible that comets will crash through the ceiling and land in my lap, but it isn't terribly likely.

2006-12-08 20:31:06 · answer #4 · answered by Voodoid 7 · 1 0

the universe most of us believe exists, based on our limited awareness, perception and consciousness, never has and never will exist ;-)

2006-12-08 19:09:34 · answer #5 · answered by drakke1 6 · 0 1

"I think therefore I am." I think Descartes got as close as anyone can.

2006-12-08 19:08:00 · answer #6 · answered by retorik75 5 · 0 0

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