2006-12-08 09:02:13 · 13 answers · asked by An Aspiring Teacher 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Well, I do have an e-mail from him in which he concedes to the fact that there was a verbal agreement, when he stated and tried to tell me that "Verbal agreements are not legally binding."
2006-12-08 09:10:12 · update #1
Technically, yes. The problem with a verbal agreement is that without some form of record (like having recorded the agreement, or a signed contract), if it came down to a court hearing, it would be a "he said, she said" kind of thing. There's really no way for you to prove you ever made a verbal agreement, so it's hard to win a case based on that. Unfair, but true. That email should help you out, but a signed document would be better. If he concedes in court that there was a verbal agreement, though, and that he failed to live up to the terms of that agreement, you have a case.
2006-12-08 09:11:49 · answer #1 · answered by Kira P 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No in divorces a verbal agreement is not legally binding as it is too hard to prove exactly what was said and agreed to, even with witnesses as too much can be added or deleted between people. Divorce documents must be in writing and notorized with signatures of all parties and any witnesses. It prevents problems on down the road especially if someone passes on.
2016-03-28 23:42:06 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Verbal agreements are valid for only one year. Some action has to be taken as the result of such an agreement, such as a rental payment, etc. This is called "consideration."
2006-12-08 09:07:41 · answer #3 · answered by boredperv 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if you have proof of such an agreement (which generally doesn't exist if the agreement was made strictly in a verbal format).
2006-12-08 09:05:42 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It may be hard to prove, but not impossible.
If, say, the agreement was that person X would pay a certain bill or pay a certain amount of rent each month, evidence that person X did pay that bill or that amount for a long enough period of time would demonstrate the existence of the agreement.
That said, next time, get them to sign the lease with you. :(
2006-12-08 09:14:55 · answer #5 · answered by Dave of the Hill People 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. All agreement that have to do with real estate must be in writing to be legal.
2006-12-08 09:28:53 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are binding but it turns into "he said, she said" and makes things very hard to prove. Writing is always best. The email may help but you just never know.
2006-12-08 09:14:40 · answer #7 · answered by Loli M 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes they are legal hard to prove. Hope you have a witness.
2006-12-08 09:10:56 · answer #8 · answered by d3midway semi-retired 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, however proving them is difficult.
2006-12-08 09:06:35 · answer #9 · answered by Local Celebrity 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well I guess so but I would always get it in writting just 2 be safe :)
2006-12-08 09:04:58 · answer #10 · answered by Johnnys Bean 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋