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Calculus Integrals

2006-12-08 04:39:49 · 2 answers · asked by meg 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

1/x^2 is the same as x^(-2)

So, ask what function has a derivative that equals x^(-2).
The general form of the antiderivative of x^r is (1/(r + 1))x^(r + 1) + k

dy/dx = x^(-2), so:

y= -1 x ^(-1) + k (where k is a constant, since dk/dx=0)

2006-12-08 04:42:05 · answer #1 · answered by Jerry P 6 · 0 0

The antiderivative of x^r is (1/(r + 1))x^(r + 1) + C. You can rewrite 1/x^2 as x^-2, making the antiderivative (1/-1)x^-1 + C = -x^-1 + C= -1/x + C.

2006-12-08 04:42:17 · answer #2 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 0 0

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