2006-12-08 02:25:42 · 5 answers · asked by mouthbreather77 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Not at all. Disarmement was the norm for America following a war up until World War II. The Republicans were actually the ones calling for disarmement as part of Warren G. Harding's return to normalcy. Republicans had become dissatisfied with the lengthy peace deliberations as had America which explains the Republican political success in the 1920 election. And the French were as much a part of disarmement as the Americans. Unlike World War II, the Americans hadn't liberated France from German occupation. The Germans only occupied a small part of France on the Western border but the conflict was long with most of the fighting done by French and British troops against German troops. France's only protest after the war was to make sure the German's would not be able to rearm themselves and make a surprise attack. The French secured their fear by making the Germans pay heavy reparations to severely damage the German economy.
2006-12-08 03:48:26 · answer #1 · answered by Nick L 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure what to make of this. The whole world starting disarming in 1919. Remember, at the time WW1 was the war to end all wars. Everyone hoped nothing like that would happen again. It wasn't just the US disarming. France disarmed too so that is not relevant. Nor is any mention of the Republicans, from 1920 throughout the 20's the president was Republican.
2006-12-08 10:38:33 · answer #2 · answered by Elizabeth Howard 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Go to a proctologist. Get your head removed from its present orifice.
2006-12-08 12:39:08 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
for going above and beyond ignorance.... you deserve a diploma
2006-12-08 10:34:43 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh Gawd....
2006-12-08 10:30:57 · answer #5 · answered by Mark 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋