I think that the feeling itself is not cognitive, while pleasantness is. This is because a feeling is not an evaluable predicate, but pleasantness is? Am I correct in assuming this?
2006-12-07 19:25:36 · 3 answers · asked by barswhereami 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Yup. The pain is a motor signal that tells your brain, especially amygdala, that it's bad. Associating unpleasentness with it is consolidating a memory, probably in a nucleus in the amygdala, maybe hippocampus depending on what the stimulus is. To feel pain involves the brain, but the fastest signals are to lower centers. I don't know if that explains what you were asking?
2006-12-07 19:32:02 · answer #1 · answered by Loves Papillons 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
when an act is wrong, you feel pain; and when an act is right, you don't feel pain... therefore, if you feel pain, the act is wrong...
did i answer the question..?
sorry if i didn't...
:P
2006-12-08 01:16:27 · answer #2 · answered by geLz 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
2006-12-08 13:43:08 · answer #3 · answered by Voodoid 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋