2006-12-07 15:27:19 · 6 answers · asked by Ahmad Aizuddin Sudari 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
True
2006-12-07 15:28:16 · answer #1 · answered by Shamudog 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the answer really lies in the definition of 'coherent'. Look in Wikipedia, it seems very informative. The answer to your question is yes, because to be coherent they have to be in phase and this implies that they must have the same polarisation.
2006-12-08 02:13:24 · answer #2 · answered by Rich 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Need not have the same polarisation. Sources must be coherent.
2006-12-08 03:08:50 · answer #3 · answered by agarwalsankalp 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Need not have the same polarisation. Sources must be coherent.
2006-12-08 01:53:19 · answer #4 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the polarisation was different, surely there couldn't be any interference?
2006-12-08 03:09:50 · answer #5 · answered by checkmate 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
last time i tried it, it gave me a negative reaction after it imploded in it's own mass which was already 100milisources over 1500micromenaces.
2006-12-07 23:29:42 · answer #6 · answered by Aioria De Leo 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋