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IF you had an infinte amount of bananas and an infinite amount of people, would you be able to give more then one banana to each person?

2006-12-07 13:47:46 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

11 answers

the only way to find if you could give more than one banana to each person is find how many people you have and how many bananas you have in order to create a problem or equation. but since both quantities are the same i should think that there would be one each. the reason for this is 2 / 2 = 1 and 3 / 3 = 1 so because both quantities are the same there should be one each.
:)

you could, as was mentioned above give person 1 bananas A and B and give person 2 bananas C and D but this would mean twice the infinite amount of bananas to people ratio.

if you have two same quantities and divide it by itself then you get 1. examples using same quantities

5 / 5 = 1
2 / 2 = 1
box / box = 1
circle / circle = 1
keyboard / keyboard = 1
this / this = 1
that / that = 1

but if i had 2 keyboards and i only need 1 then i will be using half of what i need.
similar with bananas to people in order to have 2 bananas to the person, then it would be

(infinite bananas * 2) / (infinite people) = 2bananas per person

which is simply the same as 2 to 1

the only way would be for those bananas to go infinity and beyond!! :)

2006-12-07 14:04:50 · answer #1 · answered by philosopher 3 · 1 2

If something is unlimited, than it does not pose question of quantity as a limiting factor. whether something is limited or not, depends on the source which provides it, and the capacity of the spender.

For example: eat all you can for 10 $ (but you cannot take home)
- the restaurant knows that human capacity is limited, so they put an 'unlimited' offer - there's no fine print, except the one posed by your own tummy and eating habits, plus what makes you eat more - to see more of the same food or more of the many different dishes? Personally, when we have lunch in the church, I'm half full, just to see all those kinds of food at once (not one by one). And this is probably part of the trick.
So, the restaurant is not breaking any promises, they just used the biology to make an irresistible offer, make you happy, and make profit, of course.

Now back to your question:
you should know the capacity of banana source, and the capacity of people source, as well as the rate by which the bananas become available, or demanded.

If the amounts are infinite, than neither of these are limited (cannot be expressed with a definite amount) => then we can even say that, sooner or later, there will be more than one banana for each person, therefore the only question would be: how many bananas are CURRENTLY available, at each given moment. Answer: depending on the rate of currently supplied bananas, bananas on stock, and current population.

2006-12-07 22:07:38 · answer #2 · answered by Mirta G 2 · 0 0

Yes. Infinity is a concept, not a number. It does not obey the same "rules" that finite numbers do. Suppose you want to give 2 bananas to each person. No problem, there divide the number of bananas you have by 2, and voila, you still have an infinite number of bananas.

2006-12-07 21:56:04 · answer #3 · answered by clueless_nerd 5 · 3 0

Infinity divided by infinity is indeterminate. Someone trying to find the number of bananas the average person can receive can get any sort of answer, finite or infinite.

2006-12-07 23:52:17 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes just keep giving them bananas.

2006-12-07 22:01:55 · answer #5 · answered by days_o_work 4 · 1 0

Yes.

For example, label the bananas B1, B2, B3, B4, ...
Name the people P1, P2, P3, P4, ...

Give person P1 bananas B1 and B2.
Give person P2 bananas B3 and B4.
Give person P3 bananas B5 and B6.
...
Give person Pn bananas B(2n - 1) and B(2n).

You can give each person any desired number of bananas by modifying the above construction slightly.

You can also give each person an infinite number of bananas, as follows:

Give person P1 banana B1.
Give person P1 banana B2, and person P2 banana B3.
Give person P1 banana B4; give person P2 banana B5; give person P3 banana B6.
Give person P1 banana B7; give person P2 banana B8; give person P3 banana B9; give person P4 banana B10.
...

This way, each person will receive an infinite number of bananas. Persons with high numbers won't receive any bananas for a while, but once they receive one they'll keep receiving them on each successive round, forever.

2006-12-07 21:50:58 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

no, becuase infinitity is a number and since you have the same number of both you can only give one banana to each person.

2006-12-07 21:51:20 · answer #7 · answered by E-S 2 · 1 2

Yea but what about people who dont like bananas?

2006-12-07 21:51:03 · answer #8 · answered by PenguinsWife 4 · 3 1

yes, infact... you can give infinite number of bananas to each person...

2006-12-07 22:00:04 · answer #9 · answered by Imoet 2 · 3 0

Depends. Do you see the glass as half empty or half full? If a tree fell in a forest, and no one was around, would it make a sound? Kinda the same question, if you think about it.

2006-12-07 21:51:47 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

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