2006-12-07 12:34:21 · 5 answers · asked by Marg W 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It can but only if the employer has had knowledge of the sexual harassment and has failed to take reasonable measures to investigate and prevent recurrence. If they don't know it's been going on and so have had no opportunity to act vicarious liability is unlikely to arise unless the perpetrator is a previous alleged offender and they failed to deal adequately with the situation then, thus exposing other employees to risk.
If this is happening to you, please don't just accept it. Make a formal complaint, make as big a fuss as you can about it. If you have a union, speak to them. They should be able to give some good advice. If you don't have a union and don't feel you;ve got anywhere else to go, feel free to drop me a mail with more of the details and I can at least give you some basic advice to get you started.
Oh, and that's not fishing for sleazy details - if there are any, just use euphemisms. Really hate this kind of behaviour so that suits me fine as well.
If this isn't just an academic question, good luck in getting this situation sorted out.
2006-12-07 12:55:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Generally, no. Liability is not imputed to the employer since it is not in the scope of employment. However, if the employer knew about or had reason to know about it, then liability could be applied.
2006-12-07 12:52:27 · answer #2 · answered by discmiss1 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You need to email to your boss about this harassment. If you document that you have asked his help and nothing is done, you can use that rule.
2006-12-07 12:43:00 · answer #3 · answered by Wicked 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3QOspidd7ko
2006-12-10 18:41:03 · answer #4 · answered by Pseudo Obscure 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It might, yes.
2006-12-07 12:44:03 · answer #5 · answered by Mark H 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋