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7 answers

The object can have zero acceleration only if the magnitude of that one force is zero. The catch is that if you are in a uniform gravitational field, you have no way to tell whether the strength of that field is zero or whether you are accelerating in response to that field.

Velocity is relative, so any object can have zero velocity if you choose an appropriate reference. And with any reference, the instantaneous velocity can be zero at some point in time.

2006-12-07 07:12:24 · answer #1 · answered by Frank N 7 · 0 0

Object cannot have zero acceleration - according to Newton's law a = f/m, so if f>0, a>0

Velocity could be zero. Because the object might have been moving but slowing down because of that force, and at some point the force will stop it (v=0) and start moving it to the opposite direction.

2006-12-07 07:07:38 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Acceleration is a velocity change over time.
Acceleration has to do with changing how fast an object is moving. If an object is not changing its velocity, then the object is not accelerating.
You cannot have zero acceleration.
Velocity is a vector quantity which refers to "the rate at which an object changes its position." Imagine a person moving rapidly - one step forward and one step back - always returning to the original starting position. While this might result in a frenzy of activity, it would result in a zero velocity. Because the person always returns to the original position, the motion would never result in a change in position. Since velocity is defined as the rate at which the position changes, this motion results in zero velocity.

2006-12-07 07:24:05 · answer #3 · answered by Get A Grip 6 · 0 1

the respond is the two definite. Pushing a wall will result on 0 velocity and subsequently 0 acceleration. Pushing a e book does not consistently make it strikes. remember Newton's regulation, for each action there'll consistently be opposite reaction. Pushing is the action and friction is the reaction. It order to circulate an merchandise pushing might desire to be extra effective than the friction. An merchandise at relax might have 0 velocity, a consistently shifting merchandise has 0 acceleration. So if a e book is shifting 1ft/s for a million hr, the accelertion for that factor is 0. yet that's additionally a hard question, all merchandise might have diverse action counting on the form you view it. quite if a guy on the moon is finding in the international, each thing is shifting. a million guy on elevator will say he has no velocity with admire to different guy on elevator. yet while i'm gazing them, i will declare they're shifting 10m/s upward. So be carefull........

2016-12-11 04:15:09 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Theaccleration can't be zero, but the velocity CAN be zero, even in the direction of the force.
Think about a weight on a horizontal, frictionless surface connected to a spring; when it reaches an extreme point of its oscillation, a is max and v = 0

2006-12-07 07:08:30 · answer #5 · answered by Steve 7 · 0 0

I have no idea about physics or if this is like a test question or something, but does gravity count as a force? if so then there is always at least one force acting on an object, even if its just sitting there with zero velocity and or acceleration?

i dunno...

2006-12-07 07:11:14 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

It cannot have 0 accelleration. However, it can have zero velocity in the direction perpendicular to the accelleration direction.

===force==> (Object)
||
|| velocity
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2006-12-07 07:04:20 · answer #7 · answered by fletchermse 2 · 0 0

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