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2006-12-07 06:57:39 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Government

11 answers

Typically no...

But for a VERY hot and extremely popular issue it can be done without much fuss.

Take the 13th for example...the abolition of slavery...It took less than a year from proposal to ratification

2006-12-07 07:00:11 · answer #1 · answered by feanor 7 · 0 2

Hellll no! Thats almost impossible!

The method of proposal by Congress requires a supermajority of two-thirds of both houses; this means two-thirds of those members voting in each house—assuming that a quorum exists when the vote is cast—and not necessarily two-thirds of the entire membership. Amendment proposals generally contain a deadline before which the ratification by states must be completed, but the legal status of such a deadline remains unsettled. To become valid, an amendment must then be ratified by three-fourths of the states, that is, by 38 states, either by their legislatures or by ratifying conventions. States choosing the convention method usually hold elections specifically for the purpose of choosing delegates to the convention. Once certified by the Archivist of the United States, the amendment takes effect according to its provisions and the other rules of the constitution.

2006-12-07 07:07:39 · answer #2 · answered by robertbdiver 3 · 1 0

IN a word, no it'snot and it hasnt been done very often. Here's the section of the constitution that describes what it takes.

The Congress, whenever two thirds of both houses shall deem it necessary, shall propose amendments to this Constitution, or, on the application of the legislatures of two thirds of the several states, shall call a convention for proposing amendments, which, in either case, shall be valid to all intents and purposes, as part of this Constitution, when ratified by the legislatures of three fourths of the several states, or by conventions in three fourths thereof, as the one or the other mode of ratification may be proposed by the Congress; provided that no amendment which may be made prior to the year one thousand eight hundred and eight shall in any manner affect the first and fourth clauses in the ninth section of the first article; and that no state, without its consent, shall be deprived of its equal suffrage in the Senate.

2006-12-07 07:01:20 · answer #3 · answered by baldisbeautiful 5 · 0 0

That depends entirely on who wants it passed and the subject matter. In 1913 the 16th Amendment was passed by more than a 2/3 majority of Congress (who initiated it in the first place) after Secretary of State Philander Knox fraudulently announced ratification by 2/3 of the states. Later investigations proved less than 1/3 of the state legislatures had actually ratified the amendment. Shortly thereafter (1916) the U.S. Supreme Court knocked down the basic intent of the 16th, but the decision was swept under the rug by congress who allowed it to (illegally) stand, as it still does today.
Oh.... the 16th? That is the one upon which Congress relies to perpetuate the Federal Income Tax. And that’s the rest of THAT Story.

2006-12-07 09:01:32 · answer #4 · answered by Gunny T 6 · 0 1

Not really. It's only happened 27 times and 10 of those were at the same time (the bill of rights).
Congress has to approve it by a two thirds majority. Not easy to do when the house and Senate are both split roughly 50/50, Republican/Democrat. Once that happens the amendment has to be ratified by 2/3 of the states.

2006-12-07 07:05:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

2/3 majority of the House AND the Senate
then
2/3 of the states have to ratify it.

When is the last time there was 2/3 of congress to agree on ANYTHING??

Adding an amendment to the Constitution is very hard indeed. That's why there's been so few in >200 years

2006-12-07 07:01:59 · answer #6 · answered by words_smith_4u 6 · 1 2

No, it's not. An amendment has to pass through committees in both houses and pass by a two thirds majority of congress then it can be signed by the President or he can choose to veto it. That's why the current administration has been unsuccessful every time it has tried to propose an amendment.

2006-12-07 07:02:01 · answer #7 · answered by Joanne B 3 · 0 1

Not at all. It has to pass both the House and the Senate by a 2/3rds margin, then be ratified by 3/4th of the states.

The President isn't involved in this process at all.

2006-12-07 07:01:04 · answer #8 · answered by Teekno 7 · 0 0

Not really.

It must pass both houses by a 2/3 majority, signed by the President them be ratified(voted into law) by 2/3 of the states.

2006-12-07 07:00:35 · answer #9 · answered by FRANKFUSS 6 · 1 3

No it isn't
As it shouldn't be easy

2006-12-07 07:00:14 · answer #10 · answered by Deport all ILLEGAL Alien INVADER 3 · 1 1

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