can you prove?

0 ⤊

gof = fog

2006-12-07 04:10:28 · 3 answers · asked by gaurav dixit 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

3 answers

If those are variables representing real numbers then it can be proven.

Given:
Multiplication of real numbers is commutative,

Thus:
yz = zy

Similarly:
gof = (go)(f) = (f)(go)
f(go) = f(og) = fog

Therefore gof = fog

2006-12-07 04:15:00 · answer #1 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋

I don't think this is true in general.

g(f(x)) = f(g(x)) if and only if the two functions are inverses, I think?

I'm assuming that's what you mean by gof = fog. If not, please elaborate.

2006-12-07 12:15:21 · answer #2 · answered by Jim Burnell 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋

2006-12-07 12:13:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋