Not necessarily. In Standard English, "this" becomes "that".
It is quite in order, and probably more common, to use "it" in reported speech, where "it" was used in direct speech.
eg "Write it down." He told me to write it down.
As an extra point, "that" in direct speech normally remains the same in reported speech. (Unless the reporter is still holding it.)
eg "Put that down." He told me to put that down.
2006-12-07 04:28:48
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answer #1
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answered by Palamino 4
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because of fact they're human beings. very comparable to Homosexuals who call it freedom of speech whilst they bash Christians yet call it hate whilst they have Christians bash them. this question is redundant and without factor. except you actual believe one team of human beings is extra suitable than yet another. for that reason giving them the the terrific option to experience a definite way whilst yet another can't. in the experience that your question is to sell equality then does my answer no longer do the comparable.
2016-10-14 04:58:45
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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Depends upon usage.
2006-12-06 23:02:33
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answer #3
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answered by ? 7
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yes
2006-12-06 23:02:15
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answer #4
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answered by satya h 1
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yes. depending on the usage.
2006-12-06 23:36:24
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answer #5
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answered by cv 3
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yes
eg:-
he said"pick that up" (direct)
he told me to pick that (indirect)
2006-12-06 22:57:10
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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YES 'IT' BECOMES 'THAT' IN INDIRECT SPEECH
2006-12-06 23:12:45
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answer #7
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answered by pruthwirajk 2
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YES
2006-12-06 23:22:54
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answer #8
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answered by yasha 2
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