if i signed a lease with someone and we qualified for it on my income alone, being that she was non employed at the time that we signed the lease. Can the lease be voided, 4 months into the lease now that she works, because technically we would overqualify for the apartment being that she now works.
2006-12-06 15:30:40 · 5 answers · asked by byrdman26 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
how can you be "overqualified" for an apartment
and no the lease can't be voided because someone got a job as is now working.
2006-12-06 15:33:25 · answer #1 · answered by arus.geo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If its a subsidized apartment it is based on income. Now that she is working you must claim it which in turn may make you over the income limit. Rent goes to full price.
2006-12-06 23:41:24 · answer #2 · answered by ascendent2 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on your contract - they almost always include early voiding clauses. But, it's highly unlikely that it would include "overqualifying" as a reason why you could void it. You'd have to check your contract.
2006-12-06 23:34:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, I would report it if your in a low housing unit that goes according to what you make. I think you can get in trouble if you don't.
2006-12-07 00:25:54 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are we talking about some sort of tax payer subsidised housing?
2006-12-06 23:33:33 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋