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2006-12-06 15:20:57 · 3 answers · asked by katie 4 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

does f^1(x) mean an inverse function of f(x)?

if so,

f(y)=x

3y+1=x

3y=x-1

y=x/3-1/3

thus,f^1(x)=x/3-1/3

2006-12-06 16:03:29 · answer #1 · answered by tru m 1 · 0 0

I presume you mean f^(-1)(x), or the inverse of f(x)?

If so, then first write the equation using y:

y = 3x + 1

Then swap the x and the y:

x = 3y + 1

And solve for y:

x - 1 = 3y
y = 1/3 x - 1/3

Therefore f^(-1)(x) = 1/3 x - 1/3

2006-12-06 23:23:26 · answer #2 · answered by Jim Burnell 6 · 0 0

f ^1 means a 1rst degree derivative?

2006-12-06 23:22:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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