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If f"(x)=0 everywhere on the interval (0,1) then f(x)=c , (c is a constant) on (0.1) does anyone have any suggetions on how to go about solving this

2006-12-06 14:28:11 · 2 answers · asked by wuize 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Use the mean value theorem.
Suppose f(a) and f(b) aren't equal for some a,b in (0,1).
By the mean value theorem, there is c in (0,1) with f'(c) = (f(b) - f(a))/(b-a).
But f'(c) = 0, so f(b) = f(a), contradiction.

2006-12-06 14:45:16 · answer #1 · answered by stephen m 4 · 2 0

If the derivative is zero, it means the slope is zero everywhere on the interval. Integrate the slope and get the solution that says the equation represents a straight line which is equal to a constant.

2006-12-06 14:32:27 · answer #2 · answered by Gene 7 · 0 1

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