2006-12-06 13:06:35 · 7 answers · asked by pastor_fuzz_1 3 in Business & Finance ➔ Investing
If you owned 1000 shares divide 1000 by 2 which is 500 which is how many new shares you have.You now have 1500 shares.
It means for each 2 shares they company is giving you 1 more share.
That is a forward split, in a reverse split you would lose 500 shares.
I've ben hit by a 20 to one reverse split and it sucks:):).
Your split is the good one.
2006-12-06 13:15:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
2 for 1 is just what it says...you get 2 shares for 1. Turn it into a fraction...multiply by the number of shares you have, and that is the number of shares you have now. 2/1 * 1,000 = 2,000. 3/2* 1,000 = 1,500. Of course, the price of the stock will also adjust. If it was $60 before, it will be $30 after a 2/1 split and $40 after a 3/2 split. So
1,000 shares x $60 = $60,000
1,500 shares x $40 = $60,000
2,000 shares x $30 = $60,000
In theory, splits are like dividing pieces of pie into smaller pieces. You now have more pieces, but it is still the same amount of pie.
2006-12-06 21:23:19 · answer #2 · answered by Alan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3 for 2 split is basically 1.5 for 1 stock you hold. So for 1000 shares you will get 500 more.
2006-12-07 13:18:36 · answer #3 · answered by Mathew C 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Take 1000 shares time 3 and divide by 2 = 1,500 shares
Your getting 1.5 shares for every one share you own
2006-12-07 08:16:45 · answer #4 · answered by Cheryl S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its 3/2 x #shares. So 1000 shares would = 1500 shares.
2006-12-06 22:15:35 · answer #5 · answered by micg70 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
same principal as 2 for 1: you get three for every two that you own, or an easier way to view it is 1.5 for 1.
2006-12-06 21:35:41 · answer #6 · answered by pinstripeQ 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
For every 3 shares you have they give you 2. (duh)
2006-12-06 21:11:35 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋