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2006-12-06 10:41:45 · 5 answers · asked by Eddy 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

(2cos x-1)(2cos x-1)
cos x=1/2
x=π/3 and 5π/3

2006-12-06 11:45:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

One thing to note is that your interval should be written as

0 <= x < 2pi
(it means "0 is less than x, which is less than 2pi")
The way you have it written now mathematically makes no sense.

Anyway, back to your question, it's a quadratic in disguise, and if you don't believe me, let u = cosx.

Then we have

4u^2 - 4u + 1 = 0

This factors as normal.

(2u - 1)(2u - 1) = 0
Therefore, 2u - 1 = 0
Substitute u = cosx back, to get

2cosx - 1 = 0
2cosx = 1
cosx = 1/2

Where is cosx equal to 1/2? Mentally thinking back to the unit circle, it is equal to 1/2 at pi/3 and 5pi/3
So
x = pi/3 and 5pi/3

2006-12-06 18:51:31 · answer #2 · answered by Puggy 7 · 2 0

You should recognise the LHS as a perfect square: its (2 cos x - 1)^2.
So you need 2 cos x = 1, so cos x = 0.5.
That gives x = pi/3 or 5pi/3.

2006-12-06 18:51:55 · answer #3 · answered by stephen m 4 · 2 0

set M = cosx

then 4M^2 - 4M + 1 = 0
(2M -1)(2M - 1) = 0
M = 1/2

so cos x = 1/2

x = pi/3 or 5pi/3

2006-12-06 18:54:02 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

4cos(x)^2 - 4cos(x) + 1 = 0
(2cos(x) - 1)(2cos(x) - 1) = 0
(2cos(x) - 1)^2 = 0
2cos(x) - 1 = 0
2cos(x) = 1
cos(x) = (1/2)
x = (pi/3) or (5pi/3)

2006-12-06 20:19:54 · answer #5 · answered by Sherman81 6 · 2 0

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