The antiderivative of sin(2x) is equal to (-1/2) cos(2x) = C
Explanation below.
You're in luck because what's inside sin is linear (i.e. x is a power of 1). This means that when you take the derivative, all you have to do is multiply by a constant, and in addition, when you take the integral, you also have to multiply by a constant. The constant produced by taking the integral (or antiderivative) is to offset the chain rule.
Recall that the derivative pattern for sin(x) goes as follows:
f(x) = sin(x)
f'(x) = cos(x)
f''(x) = -sin(x)
f'''(x) = -cos(x)
f''''(x) = -(-sin(x)) = sin(x)
As you can see, any sin or cos is sandwiched between its positive and negative counterpart.
The reasoning behind the antiderivative of sin(2x):
We know that the DERIVATIVE of sin(2x) is 2cos(2x). Therefore, if we take the ANTIDERIVATIVE, it will be LIKE the negative version of that, which is -cos(2x). If we take the derivative of that, we ALMOST have the answer we want, except for the pesky 2, so we have to offset that by putting (1/2).
Therefore, the antiderivative is -cos(2x) * (1/2) , or (-1/2)cos(2x)
Whenever taking the antiderivative, we always have to add a constant C, so the final answer is
(-1/2)cos(2x) + C
2006-12-06 17:47:14
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answer #2
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answered by Puggy 7
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you mean the integral
-1/2cos(2X)
f (x) = sin(x)
f '(x) = cos(x)
If the first derivative of sin (x) = cos (x)
then the integral of cos (x) = sin (x)
The first derivative of cos (x) = -sin (x)
then the integral of sin (x) = - cos (x)
2006-12-06 17:43:25
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answer #3
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answered by ۞ JønaŦhan ۞ 7
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