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In light of another shooting by cops, and the fact that I always hear politicians in the US,etc to talk about following the law, with great reverance. I just curious, specially from the early days of this nation, has the law ever been in the side of the powerless, immigrants, poor, minoritites, etc. Would that be a never, few times sometimes, all the time or always.

2006-12-06 06:16:53 · 3 answers · asked by malk e 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

3 answers

Certainly the law has changed as culture has changed. Just because you have a law it doesn't mean that the popular culture has caught up with the intent of the law.

And you forgot women in that mix of minorities. Black men got the vote before women did.

2006-12-06 06:26:24 · answer #1 · answered by Sean 7 · 1 0

A little, yes. Minorities and women getting the right to vote, the Miranda rights, there have been some landmarks to help all people, including minorities. It's only the idiots, and more than a few, who want to turn back the clock.

2006-12-06 11:51:51 · answer #2 · answered by Huey Freeman 5 · 0 0

I would say for the most part, no. I beleive that a lot of people of color have a deep mistrust for the law and the legal system. It is a well known fact that the media and positions of power are held by White men. This is scary for most minorities. Good question.

2006-12-06 06:21:01 · answer #3 · answered by cold runner 5 · 2 0

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