There is only one answer and i need help. it is with two( or more i dont know) democracy nations that went to war. i need it by 12/6 please
2006-12-05 09:50:20 · 6 answers · asked by yeah 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
I believe it's true that no two true democracies have ever engaged in war.
2006-12-05 09:52:48 · answer #1 · answered by The Scorpion 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
What he said: it really depends on what you consider a "democracy."
Iraq had a sham/facade of a democracy in place when the U.S. went to war with Iraq. One could argue that Palestine and Israel are in a state of war & both arguably have democracies. The Spanish-American War, the "Continuation War" between Russia and Finland in the 1940s, and the "Kargil War" between India and Pakistan are debatable exceptions to the rule.
The "democratic peace" theory holds that no two democracies have ever engaged in armed combat with each other. If you need one answer to the question, the likely answer is "never."
2006-12-05 10:20:26 · answer #2 · answered by Dave of the Hill People 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's actually pretty debated. Thebes and Athens fought each other in the 4th century BC. The American Civil War was technically between two democracies, since the Confederacy fits the bill. Finland and the UK declared war on each other in WWII, though there were no casualties. If you are going by the standards of the time, World War I and the Boer war were both instances of wars between democracies, as was, arguably, the American War of 1912.
2006-12-05 10:08:16 · answer #3 · answered by freddie c-r 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends what you call a "democracy".
US civil war.
S.Africa (various "nations") vs Britain (Boer war)
USA has used the CIA to overthrow many a democracy, such as Iran (installed Shah & overthrew the democratically elected Mossadegh), Guatemala (US backed coup overthrew the democracy), Nicaragua (the democracy won, US's hired "contra" army lost), Chile (US gave weapons and money to the coup which overthrew Allende and their democracy).
US war of 1812
However in all of these cases it could be argued that
one or more of the countries was not "really a democracy"
(i.e. 1812 US with slaves, women not voting) or that it was not
"really a war".
PS. I don't know why other answers say Spanish-American war of 1898. Spain was under King Alfonso XIII and his mother Christina Maria at the time. they called the shots. The Spanish Republic only was declared 1931 (and didn't last long - civil war began 1936).
2006-12-05 09:54:58 · answer #4 · answered by warren_d_smith31 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If there is only one answer, I think it would be the U.S. and Great Britain. And if you want to argue that it couldn't have been the Revolutionary War because the U.S. wasn't a sovereign nation at that point, it would be the War of 1812. I really can't think of any other truly democratic countries that "warred", unless it was Great Britain and France. The Napoleonic Wars were too diverse to consider. Hope this helps!
2006-12-05 10:36:03 · answer #5 · answered by Pete 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I've heard of the Spanish-American war fitting that description, but I don't know enough about it to be sure.
Does it count that Hitler was elected?
2006-12-05 09:58:33 · answer #6 · answered by John's Secret Identity™ 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋