Sounds like rape to me.
2006-12-05 06:59:08
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answer #1
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answered by jerrys_love 3
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Edited:
I'm extremely sorry if this situation happened to you or anyone you know. If the same thing happened to a woman I'd call it rape. However, I'd also say and have always said, that women should take responsibility for their bodies. Does that mean a woman in the type of case you described "wanted it?" Heavens, no. But a woman absolutely can not put herself in situations where a man can take advantage. Being so drunk you can't fight back against a potential attacker is one of those situations. That's what being responsible for ourselves means. We can't be responsible for others.
Upon further reflection, if this happened to a man, I'd say about the same thing. Again, I'm deeply sorry if this actually happened. Please file charges.
I guess the litmus test is, how would you feel if your wife came home and said a man had "used her body for sex" when she was drunken and asleep? Is she guilty of adultery?
2006-12-05 15:19:39
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Are you serious? I have never heard of a drunken, asleep man being able to have sex. Kinda like putting a marshmallow in a straw...
One of two things probably happened....
1. He had sex and is trying to come up with an excuse for it.
2. It happened as he said and she should be in jail for rape.
Just one question though. If he was drunk and asleep, how does he know he had sex with her at all??
2006-12-05 15:11:33
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answer #3
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answered by Leslie 2
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If he is not married to the woman, under the circumstances, it is not adultery. The woman would be guilty of rape of an unconscious person, a felony.
2006-12-05 15:11:01
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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If a man has sex with a woman against her will and she is drunk, did he commit rape?
If a man has sex with a drunken woman with her consent is it still rape?
If a drunken man has sex against his will whether it were a male or female, is it rape?
If you were raped , did you commit adultery?
2006-12-05 14:59:39
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answer #5
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answered by dominicaquilino 3
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I guess I would ask where he was when he was sleeping? If he feel asleep alone with a woman not his wife then he was in a place a marrid man should not be.
2006-12-05 15:11:02
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answer #6
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answered by brandi from texas 4
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Adultry is cheating on your spouse. If the man is your spouse, no. Could be considered rape though.
2006-12-05 15:24:01
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answer #7
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answered by www.treasuretrooper.com/186861 4
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Based solely on what you typed with no extra details. No, he is not guilty of adultery. He was drunk and asleep. He was raped.
2006-12-05 15:07:25
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answer #8
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answered by Poppet 7
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He is not guilty of adultry, but a victim of sexual assault, (If that's what really happened).
2006-12-05 20:23:45
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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No HE is not guilty if he is asleep, but SHE is desperate or screwy...How would he get an erection if he was asleep,Crazy Woman :)
2006-12-05 15:02:22
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answer #10
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answered by kel s 2
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"Uses his body for sex" Yeah right, what a freaking joke. Like he is going to get an erection when he is passed out. If you looking for an excuse to get out of trouble, forget it. You're screwed. HAHAHAHAHAHAHA
2006-12-05 15:01:01
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answer #11
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answered by javelin 5
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