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I am reading part two of his discourse of inequality among men. I see that he speaks of humans in nature and I think he says that private property causes vice?

2006-12-05 01:56:19 · 2 answers · asked by luckycharmed861010 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

2 answers

Those are 2 question:
The devolution of humans from natural harmony to modern vice is very well explained in his "La nouvelle helloise": The good infantile intuition is spoiled with ones self desire while growing and being subject to and infected by the society vices.

The private property effect is well explained in his "L'Emile": Rousseaus thinks that private property is the reason of egoism and disputes.

2006-12-05 02:20:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Nothing more and nothing less. private property is the cause of our problems. When we say mine, selfishness, dispute, greed and many other things become guidelines.
Also read the treaty about Science and Arts. (1750)

2006-12-05 02:37:33 · answer #2 · answered by sofista 6 · 0 0

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