English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

After the Compromise of 1850, which allowed the fugitve slave law to be passed and the outrage over popular soverignty in the Kansas Nebraska Act, why didn't the North Seceed? If they were that mad, why didn't they leave the union instead of the south?

2006-12-04 09:28:01 · 6 answers · asked by captaincarney 3 in Arts & Humanities History

6 answers

The north were the ones happy. The south felt that they were being treated unfairly. The north also had more sway in gov. so why leave?

And you didn't have to turn the slaves in (well by law you did but most people didn't) If you didn't get caught then you really had no reason to be mad at the gov, enough to secede.

2006-12-04 09:30:32 · answer #1 · answered by silverboy470 4 · 0 1

What you are asking was already considered during the War of 1812.

The Hartford Convention was an event in 1814 in the United States during the War of 1812 in which New England's opposition to the war reached the point where secession from the United States was discussed. The end of the war with a return to the status quo ante bellum disgraced the Federalist Party, which disbanded in most places.

As you will notice with the Conventions final report, secession was considered legal.

The convention ended with a report and resolutions, signed by the delegates present, and adopted on the day before final adjournment. The report said that New England had a "duty" to assert its authority over unconstitutional infringements on its sovereignty — a doctrine that echoed the policy of Jefferson and Madison in 1798 (in the Kentucky and Virginia Resolutions), and which would later reappear in a different context as "nullification."
The Hartford Convention's final report proposed several amendments to the United States Constitution. These attempted to combat the policies of the ruling Republicans by: 1) Prohibiting any trade embargo lasting over 60 days; 2) Requiring a two-thirds Congressional majority for any declaration of war, admission of a new state, or interdiction of foreign commerce; 3) Removing the three-fifths representation advantage of the slaveholding South; 4) Limiting future Presidents to one term; 5) Requiring each future President to be from a different state than his predecessor. (These last provisions were aimed directly at the ruling Virginia Dynasty.)


Leading up to the civil war the States of Wisconsin and Masachusetts attempting to use State Nullification to exclude federal fugative slave laws.

2006-12-04 18:12:48 · answer #2 · answered by Randy 7 · 0 0

Wow... the north, was elated by the whole issue of kansas nebraska as it gave them an advantage in congress; why would they try to leave the system if it was working for them?

-The north did not secede from the Union as they were happy with the status quo.

2006-12-04 17:49:53 · answer #3 · answered by KEiKo 3 · 0 1

the North was far less unified than the South
the protection and even expansion was a driving for southern politicians
Some Northern politicians were for slavery / some were against / it others could have cared less

So there was no reason for them to go

2006-12-04 17:37:27 · answer #4 · answered by Irish Wander 3 · 0 1

The North WAS the union.

2006-12-04 17:31:58 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Slavery was actually a very small part of the reasons the civil war started. Slavery was on its way out anyway.

2006-12-04 18:45:36 · answer #6 · answered by bumppo 5 · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers