So I'm doing a report on the 18th Amendment that was later repealed but I looked it up on the internet and it said the last state required for ratification was Wyoming.
http://members.tripod.com/bcq/eighteenth_amendment.html
And incase you don't look at the link above it said that date was Jan. 16 1919. But then there is for states after it that all have a later date then that. Did I miss something? I'm really confused! If I missed something could you explain it to me please. I can do all the other research but I don't understand this one. If you have any other facts though it'd be appreciated; but I'll settle for you just answering my question. Ü Please and Thank you!
2006-12-04 09:02:27 · 2 answers · asked by Shorty 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
That's because once Wyoming ratified it they had 3/4th of the states, which is all they need. If the other states after Wyoming had not approved it, it would still have become law.
2006-12-04 09:08:42 · answer #1 · answered by comitas89 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Just because the required number of states for ratification is met, does not mean other states can't also ratify it.
2006-12-04 17:06:58 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋