2006-12-04 07:42:52 · 14 answers · asked by Lexi 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
i will explain if no one gets this right.
2006-12-04 07:50:16 · update #1
Oh yeth there is!!
2006-12-04 07:45:40 · answer #1 · answered by SICKO 2 4 · 6⤊ 1⤋
I see you've posted a very intelligent question that is well thought out. Can you post any facts or even ideas to back up your opinion?
Forcing a company to hire a certain number of minorities is reverse discrimination. It means that a white male applying for the job does not have the same chance at getting the job. That is reverse discrimination.
You are giving a benefit to one candidate based upon their sex or the color of their skin. That is discrimination.
.
2006-12-04 15:49:42 · answer #2 · answered by FozzieBear 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
I might have to hear your explanation on this. I have heard of two types of reverse discrimination. One of course being he result of affirmative action where a more qualified person will be passed over because they don't fit the type of person that they want hired (I have seen this happen). The other is where people are more polite to minorities in public because of either guilt or fear of offending (I haven't seen this myself but I saw the movie "Animal")
But either way there are examples of this actually happening.
2006-12-04 16:07:12 · answer #3 · answered by JFra472449 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
grammatically, you're correct,however, politically, I think you're off base. Discrimination is discrimination, regardless of whom it is being thrust upon. It's a sad display of human nature to constantly want to make ones self feel better, or more superior to others on a false basis of sex, race, orientation, religion. There are bigots on all fronts, and even more sad is the fact that the faces are usually the same.
2006-12-04 16:08:10 · answer #4 · answered by mike w 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is plenty of reverse discrimination. It kept my older son out of the middle school of his choice. Our cities "voluntary desegragation" plan is being argued before the Supreme Court today.
2006-12-04 16:08:26 · answer #5 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
kind of.. it's actually a word that has a meaning... so there is such a thing.. but discrimination is discrimination-no matter how you look at it or what you call it
2006-12-04 15:56:10 · answer #6 · answered by katjha2005 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Discrimination is discrimination. The term applies no mater who it's aimed at. Maybe a better term would be retaliatory discrimination or atypical discrimination
2006-12-04 15:59:14 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
well, i can see your point that discrimination is discrimination plain and simple, but what is meant by reverse discrimination is when a policy is supposed to ensure all races are equal, yet fails to do so and puts one or more races above another.
2006-12-04 15:50:28 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
Yes there is.
I'm sick of being called a "Cracker" & a racist every time I refuse to bend over backward for someone who I don't like, regardless of thier race.
Some people need to learn that thier race has nothing to do with how they are treated, it is thier attitude.
I don't put up with White folk that are unpleasant, so why should I treat them any different?
2006-12-04 16:02:42 · answer #9 · answered by Lauren C.: Led-head 4 (∞) 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Merely a legal technicality, dearie.
In order for something to be considered discriminatory, it has to be against one of a protected class of people.
And contrary to the beliefs of many, white men are not in a "protected class."
But they should be.
2006-12-04 16:08:55 · answer #10 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
reveres discrimination is actually just discrimination
2006-12-04 15:58:42 · answer #11 · answered by truth seeker 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋