because germany has the best of everything.doctors scientists and everything.dont that mean something??????/
2006-12-04 01:55:01
·
answer #1
·
answered by redhotgermangrl 3
·
0⤊
4⤋
You question has incorrect facts in it.
Alsace-Lorraine was part of German Empire between 1871-1918, therefore Germany never needed to "take it over" during World War One. Germany took over there following the defeat of France in the Franco-Prussian War of 1871
It was returned to France in 1919 after the Treaty of Versailles.
During World War Two, after the fall of France, it again fell under German control. It reverted to French control in 1944 and has remained so ever since.
Wikipedia has a full history of the region which should do you fine.
2006-12-04 02:08:12
·
answer #2
·
answered by Dolphin76 3
·
1⤊
1⤋
Alsace and Lorraine (German: Elsass and Lothringen) are two historic provinces in eastern France. Part of the Holy Roman Empire until 1648, Alsace was added to France by the Treaty of Rijswijck in 1697. Lorraine was part of the kingdom of LOTHARINGIA, which was divided (959) into the duchies of Lower and Upper Lorraine. The latter, which became modern Lorraine, was an independent but much-fought-over duchy until 1766. Between 1871 and 1918, Alsace (the departments of Bas-Rhin and Haut-Rhin) and the eastern part of Lorraine (now the department of Moselle) were annexed to Germany as a result of France's defeat in the Franco-Prussian War. Following the defeat of Germany in WWI, from 1919 to 1940 the area belonged to France. Controversies over state-run versus religious schools and attempts to suppress German newspapers contributed to an ultimately unsuccessful movement for home rule in 1920. From 1940 to 1945 the area was again controlled by Germany; it was returned to France in 1945. Lorraine's departments of Meuse, Meurthe-et-Moselle, and Vosges remained French.
2006-12-04 22:07:05
·
answer #3
·
answered by Chariotmender 7
·
0⤊
1⤋
Hi, Alsace-Lorraine are border territories that France & Germany have been bickering over for centuries. Germany had possession of Alsace-Lorraine after the Franco Prussian War of 1870-71 & through World War One. Germany lost Alsace-Lorraine after World War One when it was ceded to France. Check your spelling & you should have better luck doing a search.
2006-12-04 02:51:03
·
answer #4
·
answered by puritanzouave 3
·
0⤊
1⤋
Alsace and Lorraine were part of the German Empire from 1871. In World War I. France very much wanted Alsace-Lorraine back.
The borders between France and Germany have fluctuated frequently throughout history. Following the breakup of Rome, power in Central European Christendom was exercised by the Holy Roman Empire, who was the political leader whilst the Pope was spiritual leader. However, since 800AD France, which united to ward off the Arab invasion of Europe, was in practice as nationa state. On the other hand, the Holy Roman Empire was always too difficult to manage, and in practice power devolved feudally onto states and principalities of varying size. One of the most powerful of these in the Later Middle Ages was Burgundy, which included areas such as Alsace and Lorraine as well as the Netherlands.
Following the Reformation, the Holy Roman Empire lost power in Germany, which became even more a lot of nation states, some of them tiny. They largely split between the Protestant North of Germany and the Catholic South..In the North, Prussia became an increasingly important power, and consequently a threat to Catholic France under Loius XIV. Louis fought a series of wars against German states as a result of which he pushed the French borders bit by bit towards the Rhine, not least in Alsace-Lorraine. The two provinces will have been included in France by Napoleon. You would need to read a history of France in some detail for a full explanation.
In the nineteenth century Prussia sught progressively to exptend its power by unifying Germany. The King of Prussia became Emperor (Kaiser) over all the states in Germany, completing the process in 1866 -1867. States such as Bavaria and Wurtemburg, which had their own King and Parliament, were part of the German Empire, but not Prussia. (You would need to look it up as I do not know, but I think that as conquered territory Alsace-Lorraine might well have been ruled by Prussia after 1971). After unifying Germany in the Empire, attacking France to "regain" Alsace-Lorriane was a logical next step in german expansion.
Leaving aside historical justifications:-
1. Alsace-Lorraine historically spoke German or a Germanic language, Alsatian.
2. Both France and Germany have wanted Alsace-Lorraine because it represents the West side of the Rhine, which is a major transport route through Europe and provides a natural border.
3. Alsace-Lorraine were very rich in coal and iron, and had developed a steel industry. These were critical materials materially as well as for economic expansion: Germany in effect had its industrial revolution in the second half of the nineteenth century. Germany therefore wanted the raw materials and industry of Alsace-Lorraine both for itself and to weaken France so that it could not repeat the Napoleonic invasion of Germany.
2006-12-04 02:47:17
·
answer #5
·
answered by Philosophical Fred 4
·
0⤊
1⤋
Because it was initially a part of Germany not France. The Germans had lost that area to the French, but I'm sorry, I forgot when or how. The people in Alsace-Lorraine all have german last names, and many speak German.
Help in search: go to Google, put in search bar:
"Alsace-Lorraine" AND France AND germany AND history. Put it just like that with the quotation marks, and the and capitalized, and no spelling mistakes or typos, like I wrote it.
2006-12-04 01:55:30
·
answer #6
·
answered by browneyedgirl 6
·
1⤊
2⤋
The reason you cant find it Dolphin76 is you have got your wars mixed up.....Alsace-Lorraine was part of German Empire till the end of WWI and lost it to France when the league of nations gave it to France... this was one of the reasons for Hitler wanting it back when he invaded France..... The land was great for farming, oil etc so was needed for the war effort as well.
2006-12-04 03:53:20
·
answer #7
·
answered by 2 good 2 miss 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
Try working on why it has two names - one german and one french. The area is right on the borders of both countries and had been variously in the hands of either France or Germany depending on who had won which war in previous centuries. It was the first thing both wanted when going to war.
PS its where the Alsatian dog originates from.
2006-12-04 03:49:59
·
answer #8
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
1⤋
germany owned alsace and loraine in WW1. the took them from the french in the franco-prussian war in the 1800's (otto von bismarck and all that jazz) the treaty was written in the palce of versialles. the french wanted them back from the germans and took them after the great war with the versialles treaty.
2006-12-04 04:40:25
·
answer #9
·
answered by Wee Murray 1
·
0⤊
1⤋
Why would they have wanted to take over something that was theirs? That area had been annexed by Prussia after the 1870 war! (Look for: Treaty of Francfort in 1871). It was the French who wanted to take that back since then.
2006-12-04 02:05:13
·
answer #10
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
1⤋
Four reasons I can think of:
1. It was a good industrialized area.
2. It provides ports on the Rhine
3. I believe a sizeable portion of the area speaks German.
4. It was historically part of the Holy Roman and Prussian Empires.
2006-12-04 01:57:29
·
answer #11
·
answered by snowgoose8 2
·
2⤊
2⤋