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Imagine infinite row of uniform spheres of mass m and radius r/2 touching each other. According to gravity theory the force acting on the first one would be sum of forces from all other spheres. The total force would be: F =Gm^2/r^(1+1/4+1/9+1/25+...+1/n^2), which gives us F=Gm^2/r^2(PI^2/6). Why (according to existing theory) infinite mass causes finite gravity? I've got some solution, but becouse is in MathType, can send it only as attachement and would appreciate if someone could check it out. My email is: kkris1@yahoo.com

2006-12-03 17:01:31 · 6 answers · asked by kkris1 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

6 answers

Your example is about a distribution of mass that extends to infinity. You calculated the gravitational force on a particular object, resulting from the infinite mass distribution. You were surprised that the force is finite.

There's really no reason to expect the force to be infinite, because the mass creating that force is spread out over an infinite distance. As the distance to a sphere increases, the gravitational force from that sphere decreases even faster. So you should not be surprised that the sum of all the forces is finite.

The convergence of the series is a mathematical fact, which can be demonstrated even without thinking about this as a physics problem.

If you are looking for a mass distribution that will turn into a black hole, then you will need an arrangement that packs a large amount of matter into a small space. If the mass density is high enough, then the object will collapse and form a black hole.

Note that black holes do not have an infinite mass. Actually, each black hole has a finite mass, and it can be measured.

At the center of a black hole is a point where the intensity of the gravity is infinite. This point is called a "singularity". The singularity cannot be directly observed, because it is inside the region from which no light can escape.

2006-12-03 18:02:13 · answer #1 · answered by Bill C 4 · 0 0

in your force equation, the series 1+1/4+1/9+1/25. . . converges to Pi/6, so the force is not infinite. additionally, you do not specify a mass or radius in your equation. if your mass is large enough, and the radius is small enough, then yes a black hole would form. essentially you need to get a large enough mass into a small enough space for the black hole to form, and in your scenario the mass is spread too thinly.

2006-12-04 02:08:40 · answer #2 · answered by Liz S 2 · 1 0

Yes they do exist...one is near our galaxy...it can be identified using some machines....u might want to check out on worm hole theory...its more interesting...

2006-12-04 01:11:46 · answer #3 · answered by Nesh 3 · 0 0

theoretically. if light is spaghettified and the mass of photons are almost zero, their must be something there.

2006-12-04 01:10:10 · answer #4 · answered by palm_of_buddha 3 · 0 0

There's alot of black hoes in my neighborhood

2006-12-04 01:10:05 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You've obviously never seen your legislature at work...

2006-12-04 01:09:11 · answer #6 · answered by mmd 5 · 0 0

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