Imagine infinite row of uniform spheres of mass m and radius r/2 touching each other. According to gravity theory the force acting on the first one would be sum of forces from all other spheres. The total force would be: F =Gm^2/r^(1+1/4+1/9+1/25+...+1/n^2), which gives us F=Gm^2/r^2(PI^2/6). Why (according to existing theory) infinite mass causes finite gravity? I've got some solution, but becouse is in MathType, can send it only as attachement and would appreciate if someone could check it out. My email is: kkris1@yahoo.com
2006-12-03
17:01:31
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kkris1
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Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics