When scrutinizing First Amendment speech rights in public places, does the Sup. Ct. ever use the "compatible use" test anymore ("whether the proposed speech is compatible or not with its other principal uses")?
Or does modern U.S. law use only the more recent classifications of traditional, limited, designated and non-public forums in determining the constitutional legality of time, place and manner restrictions?
Thanks in advance for the help.
2006-12-03 16:23:36 · 4 answers · asked by David S 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Well yeah, the problem is that everyone is ranting about free speech free speech blah blah blah.
What we need to do is define a fine line of what freedom of speech really is.
I for one, do not believe that HATE speech is FREE speech.
2006-12-03 16:26:47 · answer #1 · answered by Jac R 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Free speech restrictions in public places are more likely to be decided by the "community standards" test.
2006-12-03 16:31:57 · answer #2 · answered by Brian L 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
U.S. has a VERY broad definition of free speech. Basically ANY speech is allowed anywhere unless it incites "imminent lawless action". Supreme court said so: [1].
Some exceptions to this are obscenities and fighting words.
2006-12-03 17:07:29 · answer #3 · answered by hq3 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
right here we bypass returned. The invoice of Rights protects you from the government, no longer from ANY and ALL outcomes!!! 1st modification protects you from criminal prosecution, no longer from being fired by your corporation. relatively you may say what you choose and not be put in reformatory for it (with some exceptions like yelling fireplace! in a crowd whilst it quite is not real, or whilst under oath)
2016-10-17 16:30:00 · answer #4 · answered by bridgman 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋