English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

..........π
f(x)=∫(1+cost)dt , f'(x)= ?
..........x

2006-12-03 12:40:39 · 3 answers · asked by wafflehouse 4 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

you are having trouble because there is a minus sign?
I cannot see.... that is a f '(x) right?

by the chain rule:

d/dx f(x)= d/dx ∫(1+cost)dt = (1+cosx)*d/dx(pi) - (1+cosx)*d/dx(x)

- (1+cosx)

2006-12-03 12:45:53 · answer #1 · answered by xian gaon 2 · 0 0

You want f'(x), you should use the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (Part 1). All you have to do is evaluate the function inside the integral at the endpoints, and multiply by the derivative of the endpoints.

In this case:

(1+cos(1))*(1)' -(1+cosx)*(x)' = -(1+cosx)

See that wasn't so bad!

2006-12-04 05:51:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well the antiderivative of 1+cos(t) is
t+sin(t)

so the answer is

PI+sin(pi) - (x+sin(x))

But sin(pi) is zero, so f(x) = pi-x-sinx

2006-12-03 20:44:34 · answer #3 · answered by firefly 6 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers