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2006-12-03 11:38:43 · 3 answers · asked by toasterlove 2 in Science & Mathematics Physics

3 answers

At ordinary velocities, yes. Force = (mass) x (acceleration). If the mass is constant, then a constant force implies constant acceleration. That is according to Sir Isaac Newton. According to Albert Einstein and the Special Theory of Relativity, mass increases with relative velocity, which implies that with constant force the acceleration has to decrease in proportion to the increase in mass, approaching zero acceleration as the relative velocity approaches the speed of light. Experimental results from particle accelerators shows this is true.

2006-12-03 11:46:03 · answer #1 · answered by hevans1944 5 · 0 0

If the net force on an object is constant, then the object will accelerate in a constant manner and the acceleration vector will equal the force vector divided by the mass.

2006-12-03 11:44:01 · answer #2 · answered by heartsensei 4 · 0 0

nicely keep in mind that; a=( v.f - v.i)/ t the position v.f= very last speed and v.i= initial speed assuming the article change into set in action then its v.i = 0m/s hence a= (v.f-0)/t = v.f/t Now insert a into F=ma to get ; F = m. (v.f/t) like you stated, there had to be an acceleration for the article to be set in action.

2016-11-23 15:11:56 · answer #3 · answered by ayoub 4 · 0 0

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