jobs per man-days is
j/nd= j/(n+m)x where x is the pro-rated number of days given
n+m persons and based on the rate of 1job/nd man-days
x=nd/(n+m) days for n+m persons to do job
2006-12-03 09:02:05
·
answer #1
·
answered by captain173 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
n people do 1 job in d days. So in 1 day, n people do 1/d jobs. That means in 1 day, one person does 1/dn jobs.
Now we know there are n+m people. Each day, the do (n+m)/dn jobs. Let a be the number of days it takes them to do a job. Then...
a(n+m)
- - - - - - - = 1
dn
a(n+m) = dn
dn
-------- = a
(n + m)
So it takes n+m men (dn)/(n+m) days to do the same job.
: : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : : :
Example:
Say 3 men can do a job in 4 days.
How many days can 5 men do the same job? (n=3,d=4,m=2)
3 men can do 1/4 of the job in a day.
1 man can do 1/12 of the job in a day.
5 men can do 5/12 of the job in a day.
Therefore, 5 men can do the job in 12/5 days, or 2.2 days.
Plugging in our formula (4*3)/(3+2) = 12/5, so the answer holds.
2006-12-03 17:27:00
·
answer #2
·
answered by Texas Cowgirl 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
Use an inverse proportion:
Let the number of days sought be D. then
n * d = (n+m) * D
Solve for D.
Example:
If 1 person can do a job in 9 days, how long will it take 1+2 people to do the job?
1 * 9 = 3 * D
D = 3
2006-12-03 16:52:05
·
answer #3
·
answered by ? 6
·
1⤊
1⤋
if n people do it in d days and m do it in e days then n/d n+m/d-e
dn+dm=dn-en
dm=-en
so dm/n=-e
therefore d-dm/n days to do same job
2006-12-03 16:50:25
·
answer #4
·
answered by Me 3
·
0⤊
1⤋