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2006-12-03 05:38:04 · 5 answers · asked by i_need_a_username99 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

Yes.

-1/b * x/1 = -x/b

2006-12-03 05:42:31 · answer #1 · answered by Jim Burnell 6 · 0 0

Yes, they are equivalent. This includes the order of operations, because the reciprocal of b will be taken prior to multiplying by x. (If it was b*x first, then we'd be in trouble.)

2006-12-03 13:42:02 · answer #2 · answered by sep_n 3 · 0 0

yes, yes it is because if u multiply -1 by x you get -x. it IS the same!

2006-12-03 13:41:06 · answer #3 · answered by chatterbox15 4 · 0 0

yes as long as its not -1/(b*x)

2006-12-03 13:41:15 · answer #4 · answered by alia_vahed 3 · 0 0

y

2006-12-03 13:41:35 · answer #5 · answered by brad q 1 · 0 0

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