Ignore the stupid people above.
(1/2)(1/2)(1/2)(1/2) = 1/16
2006-12-03 05:37:41
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answer #1
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answered by doctorevil64 4
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Since each toss yeilds a 50/50% chance--and the coin is tossed four times--the correct answer is B, 1/4. The one represents the desired outcome, and the four represents the amount of tries used. If you tossed it sixteen times, the answer for having all tosses coming out "tails up" would be 1/16.
2006-12-03 05:41:30
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answer #2
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answered by writersblock73 6
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E- because you multiply 1/2 times 1/2 times 1/2 times 1/2 because each time you flip the coin there's a 1/2 chance of getting tails
2006-12-03 05:39:01
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answer #3
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answered by ZinaBeena 3
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1/2 X 1/2 X 1/2 X 1/2 = 1/16
Answer : E
2006-12-03 11:25:41
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answer #4
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answered by ursaitaliano70 7
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The answer is 1/16
2006-12-03 05:41:28
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answer #5
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answered by Mayur 2
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A) 1/2.
If there are only two sides, head or tails, there's a 50/50 chance that it will land on tails, and vice versa!
2006-12-03 05:38:40
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Meh, That would be A-1/2. There is a 50-50 chance itll land on either side.
2006-12-03 05:50:05
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answer #7
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answered by kelseycantsmile 2
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to figure this out you find the probability of each toss{ 1/2} and multiply them together 1/2x1/2x1/2x1/2 which equals 1/16 E
i am a math teacher at a middle school and know these things!!!
2006-12-03 05:41:23
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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1/2... 50% chance always.
2006-12-03 05:36:19
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answer #9
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answered by BBHEY 2
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A--50% chance each and every time.
2006-12-03 05:32:59
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answer #10
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answered by neutral 2
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