Any ideas where to start with this question or what it is asking? Also is there any books you would recommend for this?
2006-12-03 05:11:08 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Alright you Aryan scum, I'll bite.
Hitler was never "omniscient." He thought he was, but he was a psychopath. He was "omnipotent" in as far as the mindless drones he was controlling allowed him.
2006-12-03 05:24:35 · answer #1 · answered by Voodoid 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
By definition there are no degrees of omnipotence or omniscience. It's a yes or no issue -- like pregnancy. You either is or you ain't.
So the only possible answer to your question is, He wasn't -- wasn't omnipotent, omniscient or pregnant.
Where did you get this question and why are you asking it?
2006-12-03 15:45:01 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
He was omnipotent/omniscient to the point where he could convince people he was. No man truly is. Not even a dictator. No one can truly rule alone--not without the support, collaboration of at least some others. Either actively, or through complacence, fear, or inaction.
2006-12-04 06:01:12 · answer #3 · answered by silverside 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To the extend that he ended up committing suicide and that he killed 6 million innocent Jews. That is how omnipotent and omniscient he was.
2006-12-03 15:10:55 · answer #4 · answered by Lonelyplanet 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hitler held all the highest offices in Germany.That was the exstent of his legal power. He terrorized the German people with his Nazi Storm Troopers and SS guard which were auxillaries to the Nazi party.
2006-12-03 13:26:00 · answer #5 · answered by Sophist 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
None whatsoever. He was just a man like the rest of us. Just a bit delusional, like you.
2006-12-03 13:24:27 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋