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in the 1700s the growing of power of England and France contributed to tha decline of the Dutch trading empire in the East.

2006-12-03 04:40:02 · 2 answers · asked by Anmy P 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

France didn't need to rise to power in the 1700s, it was already, by the 1600s, a major player on the world stage. Britain was probably the most powerful state in Europe by 1707, the Act of Union, having thrashed France at Blenheim, Malplaquet etc. What I think cause the decline of the Dutch trading empire in the East was the American wiining their War of Independence. This made Great Britain look east for expansion, rather than west. It had lost the continental US and South America was still pretty much tied up by the Spanish. So having the East India Co., and Cook having discovered Australia, that was the natural place to look. France wasn't that much interested in colonies at the time - first there was the French Revolution, then Buonaparte became more concerned with mastery of Europe than with expansion elsewhere in the world. The Dutch did still have significant empire in the East - the whole of the Dutch East Indies - Java, Sumatra etc.

2006-12-03 04:49:49 · answer #1 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 1 0

Since when where the Dutch ever in power? Its the USA you need to be asking about.

2006-12-03 13:05:42 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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