had house before marriage and after 2 yrs wife wants divorce,is she entitled to anything husband owned before marriage?
2006-12-02 18:51:15 · 14 answers · asked by darlin12347 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
I think the man needs to get a lawyer and protect what is his. If a woman trys to take that from him, she is a greedy money hungry beouch! Generally anything that the couple used as a couple becomes marital property unless he can prove that she did not contribute to it in any way. With bank accounts, even if he had a million dollars, if she added to that account, it is possible it could be come maritial property, thus hers too. About the house... get a lawyer if you're the man. If you the woman, stop being greedy. You only were with that guy 2 years. Don't be a theif.
2006-12-02 18:55:43 · answer #1 · answered by Roger S 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
If the husband had the house before the marriage, he should be allowed to keep it. It is anything acquired by the couple during the marriage that will be considered community property and split between the two.
2006-12-02 18:57:03 · answer #2 · answered by mreheather6 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the state, if you didn't have a prenup. Some states split assets straight down the middle (like CA). Some have other schemes for dividing the property.
A lot of times, just because you bought the house premarriage and it is in your name, does not mean it is immune because the spouse is seen as contributing to the mortgage, upkeep, etc. It really just depends on the state's statutes.
Best solution -- check you state's website. A lot of them have information about laws and procedures within the state. If you can't find it there -- and it seems like you may need to anyway -- consult a lawyer. Ask around for a referral or contact your state bar association for one.
2006-12-02 19:11:44 · answer #3 · answered by Jamir 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know your state laws but I wouldn't think she could get a home that was bought before the marriage. You may have to give her the household furnishings tho. And if you have children you might have to provide a car for her for the children and of course child support. Medical insurance for the child. Did you have her name put on the deed after your marriage,if so I think that she could get the house that way.
2006-12-02 19:11:02 · answer #4 · answered by K. l 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no she not entitled to that house she entitled to half of every thing you both got together while being marry and one more thing what debt you both have to share 50/50 she pay half and the husband pay half. and what never she brought into the marriage before getting married to you is her and the same goes for you. but what never you both bought dunning the marriage you have to split in half 50/50
2006-12-02 19:02:30 · answer #5 · answered by little_bear 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, but that depends on the latate you live in. Normally property aquired before marriage remains the property of the owning party!
2006-12-02 19:13:50 · answer #6 · answered by Dre 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No she is not entitled. She maybe could get something, lets say you might have to share what the house went up in value in the two years. thats all
2006-12-02 18:58:41 · answer #7 · answered by spuds_suds 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
IF the house is only in his name, there could be problems. But once married, everything is owned "jointly" and should be divided as such. IF most was all his before he got married, I only think it would be fair that it still is; unless things were purchased together.
2006-12-02 18:55:30 · answer #8 · answered by Nancy D 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the situation do you have kids together did you support her for 2 years of marriage...think next time about a pee nup.
2006-12-02 19:32:06 · answer #9 · answered by lol_des 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it usually depends on the state they live in also if they have any children. If no children i don't think she should be entitled to anything he had before they were married
2006-12-02 18:54:14 · answer #10 · answered by Kim B 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋