the debts were not run up by means of a joint account but were run up by the wife to maintain the matrimonial home etc and to live
2006-12-02 00:53:11 · 27 answers · asked by jack y 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Some interesting answers. If you are in the UK and the debts are solely in her name then you are not liable BUT if she declares bankruptcy and the family home is in joint names the accountants representing the Official Receiver will come after you to ensure they get any equity in the property to off set against her debts.
2006-12-04 06:10:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is an error that is easily done by many.
You see, years ago when you had two people making an income, the two combined their incomes putting aside "allowance monies for general purposes for each", committing all the rest of the money to household upkeep/expenses.
Therefore, all general family needs were met and there was not so much "debt" amounts to buildup.
You paid your bills and then what was left over was your frills money.
But these days, it is all me and what I want.
There seems to be no real commitment to the equal share of household expenses.
You both use the utilities, run the appliances, eat the groceries, live in the house, run the autos, etc ..... why should the whole or best part of weight of expenses fall to one more than another?
Now it is more about what kind of "stuff" I want, bills are randomly paid while expenses are building and often times rolls over to the dissappearance of alot of marriages/families.
In order to survive as a family you totally have to participate in ALL family concerns.
2006-12-02 09:05:42 · answer #2 · answered by Marsha 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely. If you're married and the husband works but the wife doesn't and the husband, unbenowst to the wife doesn't pay taxes for say, 5 years and then the husband dies...the wife is still responsible for paying those taxes, even though she never worked a day in her life. In most states, when you're married, you are responsible for your spouses's debt, regardless of whether it's a joint account or not. It doesn't matter who actually ran up the debt, it's both who are responsible for paying them off and if a spouse dies, the other is solely responsible. Marriage is definitely a joint venture as far as the debt goes!
2006-12-02 08:56:49 · answer #3 · answered by deelberger 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i read some of the answers here
but the answer is if u are in the UK and the debts are in ur wife's name and its Unsecured then no u are not responsible for them
if its secured against the home then the home could be sold to clear the debts if u fall back on payments
for unsecured debts
only the debtor who has signed the papers stay responsible
2006-12-02 22:49:06 · answer #4 · answered by me 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, under certian circumstances.If both have joint account and borrowed money is parked there husband becomes liable.Also he is liable if he has used money or borrowed amount has been spent jointly(proof required) or wife has been declared dependent on him or there is a special provision on this in marriage contract,if any.
2006-12-02 22:55:17 · answer #5 · answered by Bipin mishra 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hmmm, ask a lawyer on this one. But if the debts are in his name, then yes he is responsible. My future father in-law said that in a marriage both people are held jointly responsible, but i am not sure if this is in all cases or states (I live in Ohio), but i know that once a couple is legally separated, then they are not responsible for each others actions.
2006-12-02 09:03:23 · answer #6 · answered by SuzyBelle04 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is called marital debt. The husband is just as responsible for the debt as his wife even though it was not physically incurred by him.
2006-12-02 09:01:56 · answer #7 · answered by stacey h 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The debt is half yours. Fasten your seat belt now! This means that you should not hold to false hope or dreams, because it is a rough road ahead. Also being realistic will decrease funds going to the attorney.
2006-12-02 09:30:59 · answer #8 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, that depends on the state and if it is a community property state or not. But his atty should be able to address that question, but only the judge can determine the answer if the parties do not agree.
Best Wishes!
2006-12-02 09:39:56 · answer #9 · answered by rmdybles30 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, as long as the debts were incurred during the time of matrimonial...unless your wife is honest enough to leave you out of her mess. Which is impossible and will never happened...
2006-12-02 08:57:09 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋