Now that homosexual partnerships are recognised union for legal purposes, how does the dissolution of an unconsumated but otherwise loving heterosexual marriage compare in law with that of a 'consumated' homosexual partnership? Are both seen as equal, or it the homosexual relationship considered of better standing in law. If the latter, does this now mean that homosexual sex is considered more worthy in law than a loving but celibate partnership??
2006-11-30
23:19:16
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5 answers
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asked by
D
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Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics