He (he is a Peruvian native by the way, and not a resident of the US) married his second wife (she is also peruvian) in Peru two months before the judge finalized our (I'm American) divorce here in the U.S.
He is now seeking a divorce from her, however, and is curious if he can invalidate the marriage by stating he wasn't divorced before he married her. If he does this, will he be charged with Bigamy?
Would it be better just do go through the divorce procedure in Peru and not say anything about the other divorce not being final (he's the only one that knows, she doesn't)?
2006-11-30
12:55:37
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7 answers
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asked by
MeMyselfandI
1
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Marriage & Divorce