2006-11-30 12:27:38 · 4 answers · asked by yidlmama 5 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
By the way, this is a question from my daughters homework. I am tired of our schoolbooks leaving out some of the truths.
And yes, this is me yidlmama
2006-11-30 14:42:56 · update #1
Not 'did', try 'does', we're domestic dependent sovereigns, which is why treaties were signed between the US and ratified by the congress, just as nations did. Not all tribes used the treaty process, however, including mine. As you know, not all the treaties were kept, however, we did keep our independent governments, etc., although we're in the 'confines' of State boundaries.
2006-11-30 13:32:02 · answer #1 · answered by Its not me Its u 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It did. When they were referring to "people" they mean the whites living in the colonies at the time. The more civilized people of the land.
2006-11-30 20:29:12 · answer #2 · answered by arsenalthierry 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Aparenttly it did not include the Red Man or the Black Man ,Sad but true!
2006-11-30 21:23:52 · answer #3 · answered by JNISSI 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yidlmama Is this you? … :)!
http://www.osoq.com/funstuff/extra/extra01.asp?strName=yidlmama
2006-11-30 20:41:11 · answer #4 · answered by mvh p 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋