Serious answers preferred....
2006-11-30 12:26:42 · 7 answers · asked by yidlmama 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
The Constitution does briefly mention the Indians and Indian tribes.
Article I, Section 2. (later superceded by the 14th amendment) states that non-taxed Indians would not be counted as part of the population of the states used to determine Congressional representation.
Article I, Sec. 8 grants Congress the power to regulate trade "with the Indian Tribes."
These sections seem to imply that Native American tribes were seen as politically independent entities.
2006-11-30 13:02:24 · answer #1 · answered by timm1776 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
as any other nation. Like England, France and Spain.
2006-11-30 20:35:38 · answer #2 · answered by vv 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
as I sit and think about your question, it comes to me that the constitution does not address any particular group.
2006-11-30 20:32:35 · answer #3 · answered by auhunter04 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
nothing in constitution concerning that.
2006-11-30 20:30:42 · answer #4 · answered by cork 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As non-citizens
2006-11-30 20:28:28 · answer #5 · answered by HawkEye 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They, like the blacks, were NOT viewed as "We, the people..." NOT LOL...
2006-11-30 20:30:51 · answer #6 · answered by KnowhereMan 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It didn't.
2006-11-30 20:27:33 · answer #7 · answered by Ludwig Wittgenstein 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋