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I know this isnt a simple one word answer. How can I answer this question & what data will I need to back up my assertion. Thanks!

2006-11-30 11:49:31 · 1 answers · asked by yeaitsmemarc 1 in Social Science Economics

1 answers

No, the purchasing power parity does not hold. To see that it is the case, just compare oil prices and domestic gasoline prices. Or export and domestic prices of natural gas, for that matter...

2006-11-30 15:00:59 · answer #1 · answered by NC 7 · 0 0

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